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differential diagnosis

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on differential diagnosis.

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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric clinic by their parents due to a 2-month history of increasing abdominal distension, poor appetite, and occasional constipation. On physical examination, a firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen, crossing the midline. Vital signs are stable. Initial blood tests, including full blood count and liver function tests, are within normal limits. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following investigations represents the most appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis and guiding further management?

A. Surgical resection of the mass
B. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy
C. Repeat abdominal CT scan in three months
D. Urine catecholamine metabolites (VMA and HVA)
E. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe testicular pain on the right side. He reports no trauma or previous episodes. On examination, the right testis is swollen, tender, and lies higher in the scrotum compared to the left. The cremasteric reflex is absent on the affected side. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Doppler ultrasound of the scrotum
B. Urgent surgical exploration
C. Analgesia and observation
D. Empirical antibiotics for epididymitis
E. Manual detorsion attempt
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Gynaecomastia
Image by ProloSozz CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with a six-month history of bilateral breast tenderness and swelling. He is otherwise asymptomatic, reporting no nipple discharge, skin changes, or palpable lumps. His medical history includes well-controlled hypertension on amlodipine. He denies illicit drug use or significant alcohol intake. On examination, the finding shown in the image is noted. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?

A. Advise lifestyle modification and review in three months.
B. Serum hormonal profile including testosterone, oestradiol, LH, FSH, prolactin, and hCG.
C. Referral for surgical consultation and potential biopsy.
D. Bilateral diagnostic mammography to rule out malignancy.
E. Ultrasound examination of the breast and axillary lymph nodes.
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A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and works as a construction worker. On examination, he has cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Blood tests reveal anemia and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). A chest X-ray shows a mediastinal mass. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiate corticosteroid therapy
B. Start empirical antibiotic therapy
C. Order a CT scan of the chest and abdomen
D. Perform a lymph node biopsy
E. Refer for surgical excision of the mass
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A 1-month-old baby has a palpable mass in the right flank and abdominal swelling. An ultrasound reveals a solid mass in the kidney. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Neuroblastoma
B. Polycystic kidney disease
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Renal cell carcinoma
E. Wilms tumor
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Synchronous multiple small bowel intussusceptions in an adult with blue rubber bleb naevus syndrome. CT scan of abdomen showing i) multiple intussusceptions demonstrating doughnut signs (white arrows), intussusceptiens [A], intussusceptum [B], distended loop of small

bowel [C] and ii) haemangioma of right quadratus lumborum muscle (dark arrow).
Image by Lee C, Debnath D, Whitburn T, Farrugia M, Gonzalez F CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most likely underlying pathology responsible for the patient's symptoms and the observed bowel findings?

A. Mesenteric adenitis triggering intussusception
B. Inflammatory strictures leading to obstruction
C. Lymphoid hyperplasia causing transient intussusception
D. Malignant polyps causing intussusception
E. Intestinal haemangiomas acting as lead points
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, malaise, and a painful, swollen left knee. She denies any recent trauma or travel history. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, her temperature is 38.7°C, heart rate is 110 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. The left knee is erythematous, warm, and tender with a moderate effusion, and she has limited range of motion due to pain. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with a left shift. Blood cultures are pending. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Start empirical intravenous antibiotics
B. Arthrocentesis of the left knee
C. Administer oral NSAIDs
D. Refer to rheumatology for further evaluation
E. Order an MRI of the knee
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain radiating to the back. He is a smoker and has a history of hypertension. On examination, he is diaphoretic, with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals a pulsatile mass in the midline. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
C. Acute mesenteric ischemia
D. Perforated peptic ulcer
E. Renal colic
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A 15yo boy has no puberty signs. Initial tests show low LH/FSH. What is the most likely next step in investigation?

A. Bone age X-ray
B. MRI pituitary
C. GnRH stimulation test
D. Karyotype
E. Reassurance and review in 6 months
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Gynaecomastia
Image by ProloSozz CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 58-year-old man presents to his general practitioner expressing concern about the appearance of his chest, which he feels has become more prominent over the past 18 months. He denies any pain, tenderness, or nipple discharge. His medical history includes well-controlled hypertension managed with perindopril and occasional use of ibuprofen for mild osteoarthritis. He reports no significant changes in weight, appetite, or energy levels. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol socially, approximately 5 standard drinks per week. He works as an accountant and reports no exposure to unusual chemicals or substances. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal examination reveals no hepatosplenomegaly. Testicular examination is normal in size and consistency, with no palpable masses. The image provided shows the appearance of his chest. Considering the patient's presentation and the visual finding, what is the most appropriate initial investigation to pursue?

A. Genetic testing for Klinefelter syndrome.
B. Serum levels of testosterone, luteinising hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), oestradiol, and prolactin.
C. Liver function tests and renal function tests.
D. Mammography of the chest to assess for underlying malignancy.
E. Referral for psychological assessment and counselling regarding body image concerns.
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A 22-year-old female presents with a strange tongue appearance after brushing her teeth, with no pain. She has a history of pustular psoriasis. What is the next step?

A. Reassure - no treatment needed.
B. Prescribe oral antifungal.
C. Daily AB mouthwash until the tongue is normal.
D. Biopsy of tongue lesion.
E. Refer to a dermatologist.
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain that started suddenly 3 hours ago. She describes the pain as sharp and radiating to her right shoulder. She has a history of gallstones but has never had surgery. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her heart rate is 100 bpm. She has tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a positive Murphy's sign. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis and mildly elevated liver enzymes. An abdominal ultrasound shows gallstones and a thickened gallbladder wall with pericholecystic fluid. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Immediate endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
B. Discharge with outpatient follow-up for elective cholecystectomy
C. Intravenous antibiotics and surgical consultation for cholecystectomy
D. Observation and pain management with oral analgesics
E. Percutaneous cholecystostomy
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that the pain started suddenly a few hours ago and has been worsening. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Renal colic
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Acute appendicitis
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A 55-year-old farmer presents with a week of high fever, severe retro-orbital headache, and profound muscle aches. He denies cough, sore throat, or rash. On examination, temperature is 39.5°C, pulse 90, BP 120/80. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Abdomen is soft, non-tender. Initial bloods show mildly elevated transaminases. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Typhoid fever
B. Leptospirosis
C. Influenza
D. Dengue fever
E. Q fever
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. It is slightly tender, especially before her period. On examination, it is mobile, firm, and about 2 cm. No skin changes or nipple discharge. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Ultrasound of the breast
B. Observation and review in 3 months
C. MRI of the breast
D. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)
E. Mammography
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Which of the following organs is located in the left hypochondriac region?

A. Sigmoid colon
B. Appendix
C. Spleen
D. Urinary bladder
E. Gallbladder
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with right lower quadrant pain for 3 days. She denies fever, vomiting, or vaginal discharge. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Endometrioma
B. Corpus luteum cyst
C. Mature cystic teratoma
D. Tubo-ovarian abscess
E. Ovarian torsion
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A 2-week-old baby is brought to the clinic with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. On examination, the abdomen is tense and tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
B. Necrotizing enterocolitis
C. Hirschsprung disease
D. Meconium ileus
E. Intestinal atresia
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A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started suddenly 6 hours ago. The pain is located in the right lower quadrant and is associated with nausea and vomiting. On examination, he has rebound tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. A CT scan of the abdomen shows an inflamed appendix with surrounding fat stranding. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Percutaneous drainage
B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C. Appendectomy
D. Observation and repeat imaging
E. Intravenous antibiotics only
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A neonate, born at 38 weeks gestation, presents with bilious vomiting starting 12 hours after birth. Antenatal ultrasound revealed polyhydramnios. On examination, the baby is active and has a distended upper abdomen but a scaphoid lower abdomen. An abdominal X-ray shows a 'double bubble' sign. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this neonate, considering potential associated complications?

A. Immediately perform a contrast enema to rule out meconium ileus as a cause of the obstruction.
B. Initiate intravenous fluids, nasogastric decompression, and prepare for surgical intervention after stabilization.
C. Begin feeds with a hydrolysed formula to assess tolerance and rule out milk protein allergy.
D. Start the neonate on broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover potential bacterial translocation.
E. Perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to visualize the obstruction and obtain biopsies.
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. He has a history of hypertension and is a smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg in the right arm and 160/100 mmHg in the left arm. His heart rate is 110 bpm, and he has diminished pulses in the left radial artery. A chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Immediate surgical consultation
B. CT angiography of the chest
C. Nitroglycerin infusion
D. Intravenous beta-blockers
E. Echocardiography
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He describes the headache as the worst he has ever experienced. He has a history of hypertension but is otherwise healthy. On examination, he is alert but in distress due to the headache. His blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm, and he has no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the next best step in management?

A. Administer analgesics and observe
B. Repeat CT scan with contrast
C. MRI of the brain
D. Lumbar puncture
E. Start antihypertensive therapy
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she is alert but in distress due to the headache. Her vital signs are stable, and there is no neck stiffness. A CT scan of the head is performed and shows no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Consult neurology for further evaluation
B. Administer intravenous analgesics and observe
C. Order an MRI of the brain
D. Discharge with oral analgesics and follow-up
E. Perform a lumbar puncture
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Gynaecomastia
Image by ProloSozz CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of bilateral breast enlargement and tenderness. He denies weight loss, fever, or changes in bowel habit. His medical history includes hypertension managed with amlodipine. On examination, vital signs are stable. The physical findings are demonstrated in the image. There is no palpable testicular mass. Given the clinical presentation and the findings shown, which of the following investigations is the most appropriate initial step to determine the underlying cause?

A. Mammography of both breasts
B. Fine needle aspiration of the breast tissue
C. Serum testosterone, oestradiol, LH, FSH, prolactin, and hCG
D. Trial of tamoxifen
E. Liver function tests and renal function tests
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An elderly man presents with a 6-month history of memory decline, recurrent falls, visual hallucinations, agitation, and confusion. His wife reports he talks to people who are not visible. Which of the following clinical features is most helpful in diagnosing his condition?

A. Nystagmus
B. Parkinsonian gait/tremor
C. Ataxia
D. Aphasia
E. Hemiparesis
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A 56-year-old gentleman, a gardener and cat owner, presents with 24 hours of pain, swelling, and redness on his right index finger. His temperature is 38.1°C and pulse is 72. Suspected gout. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Aspirate joint for microscopy and culture.
B. Urgent hospital referral for drainage and IV antibiotics.
C. Prescribe oral antibiotics and review in 24 hours.
D. Start diclofenac TDS and discuss allopurinol.
E. Order serum uric acid level.
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A 30-year-old woman presents with fever, hemoptysis, and night sweats. A chest X-ray shows a round lesion with an air-fluid level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Lung cancer
E. Lung abscess
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A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The pain started around the umbilicus and then localized to the right lower quadrant. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 38.3°C, heart rate is 100 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Renal colic
E. Gastroenteritis
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats over the past two months. She has a history of smoking and hypertension. On examination, she has palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL, elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and a peripheral blood smear showing atypical lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Hodgkin's lymphoma
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
E. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
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Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old male with LLQ pain and mild fever has the CT abdomen shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Colonoscopy to rule out malignancy
B. Oral antibiotics and outpatient follow-up
C. Stool culture to rule out infectious colitis
D. IV antibiotics and admission for observation
E. Surgical consultation for possible resection
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started around his umbilicus and has now localized to the right lower quadrant. He has nausea and has vomited twice. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, and his white blood cell count is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Renal colic
C. Cholecystitis
D. Gastroenteritis
E. Acute appendicitis
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old presents with abdominal distension and vague pain. Vitals are stable. An abdominal CT is performed (image attached). Elevated levels of HVA and VMA are noted in the urine. What is the MOST likely origin of the primary lesion?

A. Spleen
B. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Adrenal gland
E. Kidney
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A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running. There is no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Lateral meniscus tear
B. Iliotibial band syndrome
C. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
D. LCL sprain
E. Quadriceps tendon tear
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Diverticulitis in the left lower quadrant. There is outpouching of the colonic wall, wall thickening, and surrounding fat stranding.
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 62-year-old male presents with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image attached). Assuming the diagnosis, which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A. Colonoscopy to rule out malignancy
B. Oral antibiotics and outpatient follow-up
C. IV antibiotics, bowel rest, and surgical consultation
D. Stool culture and empiric antibiotics
E. High-fiber diet and increased fluid intake
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Figure 3 of paper: Alveolar echinococcosis in a patient with immunosuppression.

(a) Abdominal gray-scale US shows an abscess-like hepatic image.
(b) Axial unenhanced CT shows a typical aspect of pyogenic liver abscess.
Image by Wenya Liu, Éric Delabrousse, Oleg Blagosklonov, Jing Wang, Hongchun Zeng, Yi Jiang, Jian Wang, Yongde Qin, Dominique Angèle Vuitton, Hao Wen CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 55-year-old renal transplant recipient on long-term immunosuppression presents with a 2-week history of low-grade fever, malaise, and dull right upper quadrant discomfort. Physical exam is unremarkable except for mild tenderness. Labs show mild leucocytosis and elevated CRP. Imaging is shown. What is the most appropriate next step to determine the specific aetiology of the findings?

A. Percutaneous aspiration and microbiological analysis
B. Repeat abdominal imaging in one week
C. Urgent surgical exploration and biopsy
D. Comprehensive liver function tests and viral hepatitis serology
E. Empirical broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 40-year-old patient presents with a persistent, slightly raised lesion on their nose that has been present for several months. It is asymptomatic except for occasional mild itching. There is no history of trauma or recent changes in size or colour. The patient is otherwise healthy. Considering the appearance of the lesion shown and the clinical presentation, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial approach?

A. Reassure the patient that it is likely benign and requires no further action.
B. Obtain a biopsy of the lesion for histological examination.
C. Prescribe a course of topical antibiotic cream.
D. Advise the patient to apply over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream.
E. Arrange urgent referral to a plastic surgeon for wide local excision.
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A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the right upper lobe. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Sarcoidosis
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea but no vomiting. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is not sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Her vital signs are stable. A pelvic ultrasound shows a 5 cm cyst on the right ovary with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ovarian torsion
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Ruptured ovarian cyst
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Appendicitis
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Which of the following organs is located primarily in the left upper quadrant (LUQ) of the abdomen?

A. Appendix
B. Gallbladder
C. Right kidney
D. Spleen
E. Sigmoid colon
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A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough and shortness of breath. He is a non-smoker and works as a carpenter. On examination, there are bilateral inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. A chest X-ray shows reticular opacities predominantly in the lower lobes. Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Asthma
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E. Sarcoidosis
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A 50-year-old woman presents with increasing abdominal swelling and early satiety. Examination reveals ascites. Which investigation is most crucial to guide initial management?

A. Diagnostic paracentesis
B. Complete blood count
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. Liver function tests
E. Serum albumin and ascitic fluid protein
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old patient presents with intermittent chest discomfort and increasing shortness of breath, particularly after meals. Vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's symptoms, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Trial of high-dose proton pump inhibitors
B. High-resolution CT chest
C. Barium swallow study
D. Referral for surgical assessment and repair
E. Urgent cardiac catheterisation
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, described as the worst headache of his life. He also reports nausea and photophobia. On examination, he is alert but in distress, with a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg, heart rate of 90 bpm, and no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head is performed and shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. MRI of the brain
B. Administer analgesics and observe
C. Start antihypertensive therapy
D. Lumbar puncture
E. Repeat CT scan with contrast
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A patient reports dizziness with neck extension. Which manoeuvre is most appropriate to assess for vertebrobasilar insufficiency?

A. Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
B. Carotid duplex ultrasound
C. Valsalva manoeuvre
D. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency test
E. Romberg test
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is 8 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period. She reports no fever or chills. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and she appears pale and diaphoretic. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the lower quadrants without rebound tenderness or guarding. A pelvic examination shows a closed cervical os with moderate bleeding. A bedside transvaginal ultrasound reveals an empty uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer methotrexate
B. Perform an exploratory laparotomy
C. Administer anti-D immunoglobulin
D. Observe and repeat ultrasound in 48 hours
E. Perform a dilation and curettage
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, described as the worst headache of her life. She also reports nausea and photophobia. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, which is poorly controlled. On examination, she is alert but in distress, with a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg, heart rate of 90 bpm, and temperature of 37°C. Neurological examination reveals neck stiffness but no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head is performed and shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the next best step in management?

A. Lumbar puncture
B. Start intravenous labetalol
C. MRI of the brain
D. Administer sumatriptan
E. Repeat CT scan with contrast
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, headache, and a rash that started on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her trunk. She recently returned from a camping trip in the Northern Territory. On examination, she is febrile at 38.5°C, with a heart rate of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. The rash is maculopapular and blanching. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Drug reaction
C. Rickettsial infection
D. Viral exanthem
E. Meningococcal infection
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Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. Based on the imaging, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. IV antibiotics and bowel rest
B. Surgical resection of the affected bowel segment
C. Flexible sigmoidoscopy to rule out malignancy
D. Increase dietary fiber intake and follow up with GP
E. Stool culture to rule out infectious colitis
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 32-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and bloating. Her periods are regular. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Oral contraceptive pills
B. CA-125 level
C. Repeat imaging in 6-12 weeks
D. Laparoscopic cystectomy
E. Referral to gynaecological oncology
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A 24-year-old lady presents with worsening right eye 'ache' and reduced vision. The symptoms worsen with eye movements, and there is no redness or fluorescein uptake. Her vision is 6/12 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left eye. There is a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on examination. What associated disease could this indicate?

A. Neuromyelitis optica
B. Graves’ disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Ischemic optic neuropathy
E. Sarcoidosis
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